Consequentive crystal pulls are getting out of control

123578

Comments

  • Colinwhitworth69Colinwhitworth69 Member Posts: 7,470 ★★★★★
    You have the same chance of pulling any two specific champs in a row, whether they are the same champ or not.

    It's the same pool of possible pulls each time.
  • PikoluPikolu Member, Guardian Posts: 7,672 Guardian

    You have the same chance of pulling any two specific champs in a row, whether they are the same champ or not.

    It's the same pool of possible pulls each time.

    The issue is we look at the as not independent events. While you are correct it is the same chance independently, the aren't the same dependently.
  • PikoluPikolu Member, Guardian Posts: 7,672 Guardian

    Pikolu said:

    Pikolu said:

    I love all the people that don't understand statistics on here. If your looking at the odds of pulling 2 champs individually, then it is 1/250. However that isn't what we are looking at, we are looking at both events dependently. The second event event can't happen without the first one. So if we look at the odds of pulling a 10 of clubs after drawing a 10 of hearts, then it is 1/52 (for the clubs) multiplied by 1/51 (for the hearts) because of the 1/52 chance, you get a clubs, there is still a 1/51 chance to pull the hearts so you multiply the odds together to reflect the accuracy of getting both cards. This is basic statistics I learned in high school.

    Your statistics is good, but your understanding of and application to the problem less so

    I’d give it a 4/10 overall
    I personally don't care about the problem, I just want people to be educated on statistics before they shoot themselves in the foot playing poker.
    You don't care about the problem and still come and give incorrect answers? Why?
    What's incorrect? Do enlighten me please? Because using my scenario you have to run all 51 tests to get the second card statistically because there are 50 cases where you draw the wrong one and 1 where you get the right one. That is why we multiply them
  • This content has been removed.
  • PikoluPikolu Member, Guardian Posts: 7,672 Guardian
    edited March 2022

    Pikolu said:

    Pikolu said:

    I love all the people that don't understand statistics on here. If your looking at the odds of pulling 2 champs individually, then it is 1/250. However that isn't what we are looking at, we are looking at both events dependently. The second event event can't happen without the first one. So if we look at the odds of pulling a 10 of clubs after drawing a 10 of hearts, then it is 1/52 (for the clubs) multiplied by 1/51 (for the hearts) because of the 1/52 chance, you get a clubs, there is still a 1/51 chance to pull the hearts so you multiply the odds together to reflect the accuracy of getting both cards. This is basic statistics I learned in high school.

    Your statistics is good, but your understanding of and application to the problem less so

    I’d give it a 4/10 overall
    I personally don't care about the problem, I just want people to be educated on statistics before they shoot themselves in the foot playing poker.
    You don't care about the problem and still come and give incorrect answers? Why?
    Don't mind me as I pull up a source to back up my claim.

    "Dependent events: Two events are dependent when the outcome of the first event influences the outcome of the second event. The probability of two dependent events is the product of the probability of X and the probability of Y AFTER X occurs.

    P(XandY)=P(X)⋅P(Yafterx)"

    https://www.mathplanet.com/education/pre-algebra/probability-and-statistic/probability-of-events#:~:text=Dependent events: Two events are,of Y AFTER X occurs.
  • edited March 2022
    This content has been removed.
  • Wicket329Wicket329 Member Posts: 3,363 ★★★★★
    Pikolu said:

    Pikolu said:

    Pikolu said:

    I love all the people that don't understand statistics on here. If your looking at the odds of pulling 2 champs individually, then it is 1/250. However that isn't what we are looking at, we are looking at both events dependently. The second event event can't happen without the first one. So if we look at the odds of pulling a 10 of clubs after drawing a 10 of hearts, then it is 1/52 (for the clubs) multiplied by 1/51 (for the hearts) because of the 1/52 chance, you get a clubs, there is still a 1/51 chance to pull the hearts so you multiply the odds together to reflect the accuracy of getting both cards. This is basic statistics I learned in high school.

    Your statistics is good, but your understanding of and application to the problem less so

    I’d give it a 4/10 overall
    I personally don't care about the problem, I just want people to be educated on statistics before they shoot themselves in the foot playing poker.
    You don't care about the problem and still come and give incorrect answers? Why?
    Don't mind me as I pull up a source to back up my claim.

    "Dependent events: Two events are dependent when the outcome of the first event influences the outcome of the second event. The probability of two dependent events is the product of the probability of X and the probability of Y AFTER X occurs.

    P(XandY)=P(X)⋅P(Yafterx)"

    https://www.mathplanet.com/education/pre-algebra/probability-and-statistic/probability-of-events#:~:text=Dependent events: Two events are,of Y AFTER X occurs.
    Yes, and the probability of X is 1. You are going to pull a champion. 100% of the time you open a champion crystal, you will get a champion. That’s the first variable.

    The second one is will you pull *that same champion.* That’s where it becomes this 1/250 because now it matters which *specific* champion you pull, whereas it did not originally.

    Therefore 1 x 1/250 = 1/250.
  • AverageDesiAverageDesi Member Posts: 5,260 ★★★★★
    Pikolu said:

    Pikolu said:

    Pikolu said:

    I love all the people that don't understand statistics on here. If your looking at the odds of pulling 2 champs individually, then it is 1/250. However that isn't what we are looking at, we are looking at both events dependently. The second event event can't happen without the first one. So if we look at the odds of pulling a 10 of clubs after drawing a 10 of hearts, then it is 1/52 (for the clubs) multiplied by 1/51 (for the hearts) because of the 1/52 chance, you get a clubs, there is still a 1/51 chance to pull the hearts so you multiply the odds together to reflect the accuracy of getting both cards. This is basic statistics I learned in high school.

    Your statistics is good, but your understanding of and application to the problem less so

    I’d give it a 4/10 overall
    I personally don't care about the problem, I just want people to be educated on statistics before they shoot themselves in the foot playing poker.
    You don't care about the problem and still come and give incorrect answers? Why?
    Don't mind me as I pull up a source to back up my claim.

    "Dependent events: Two events are dependent when the outcome of the first event influences the outcome of the second event. The probability of two dependent events is the product of the probability of X and the probability of Y AFTER X occurs.

    P(XandY)=P(X)⋅P(Yafterx)"

    https://www.mathplanet.com/education/pre-algebra/probability-and-statistic/probability-of-events#:~:text=Dependent events: Two events are,of Y AFTER X occurs.
    It isn't common for people to cite sources and yet still be wrong. So I'm assuming you don't understand what the issue is.

    We have 2 crystals that we open. The chance of getting a champ on the first crystal is 100%.

    Whatever the champ may be, the chance of getting that champ now that we have a specific champ in mind, is 1/250.

    Point to note is that no matter which champ you want in the second crystal , the chance of getting any specific champ is 1/250
  • PikoluPikolu Member, Guardian Posts: 7,672 Guardian
    You guys are missing the point. While you are correct in a way, I'm looking at specifically pulling 2 of the same champs. For my example I'm looking at the odds of pulling Nebula, the first is 1/250, the second is also 1/250. The second event is dependent on the first happening in the first place. You guys are just looking at the second event after a guaranteed first event. That is a different form of statistics and would be independent.

    Remember statistics is the art of making the numbers say what you want them to say.

    So we are actually both correct in our understandings of the situation.
  • AverageDesiAverageDesi Member Posts: 5,260 ★★★★★
    Pikolu said:

    You guys are missing the point. While you are correct in a way, I'm looking at specifically pulling 2 of the same champs. For my example I'm looking at the odds of pulling Nebula, the first is 1/250, the second is also 1/250. The second event is dependent on the first happening in the first place. You guys are just looking at the second event after a guaranteed first event. That is a different form of statistics and would be independent.

    Remember statistics is the art of making the numbers say what you want them to say.

    So we are actually both correct in our understandings of the situation.

    Ah yes. You get it. Unfortunately OP does not.
  • This content has been removed.
  • Fit_Fun9329Fit_Fun9329 Member Posts: 2,177 ★★★★★
    I came out of curiosity in this thread - now I am afraid that I am the only one in the forum with no advanced math knowledge. Do you like me still :(
  • Colinwhitworth69Colinwhitworth69 Member Posts: 7,470 ★★★★★
    Pikolu said:

    You have the same chance of pulling any two specific champs in a row, whether they are the same champ or not.

    It's the same pool of possible pulls each time.

    The issue is we look at the as not independent events. While you are correct it is the same chance independently, the aren't the same dependently.
    Each pull is independent. Same pool every time.
  • SquirrelguySquirrelguy Member Posts: 2,653 ★★★★★
    DNA3000 said:

    DNA3000 said:

    Wicket329 said:

    This thread is going to give me an aneurysm.

    Could be worse. We could be discussing the Monty Haul problem.

    Oh man, I really gotta get the Kabam developers to implement that one in the game. The enormous advantage the people who accept the math would have over the players willing to die on the hill of incorrect intuition would be awesome.
    MCOC Monty Hall problem: Groots
    behind two doors and a Ghost behind the third?
    The Monty Haul Mythic Nexus crystal. Guaranteed to have exactly one 6* champ option, the rest are 3*.

    Game shows you three hidden options. You get to pick one. Before the game shows you what you picked, it opens one option that definitely contain a 3* champ. Then it gives you the option to keep your choice or switch.

    Those who switch will have an enormous edge over those who stick. But the people who do stick will be so convinced they are correct to stick many will do so no matter how horrible their results are, then they will descend into crystal manipulation madness convinced the game is cheating them. Meanwhile the people who understand the actual probabilities will be getting 6* champs twice as often as those who stick.

    You balance the cost of the crystal as costing about 50% of the relative cost of a 6* crystal. Those who switch come out ahead. Those who don't come out behind. Good math wins. Bad math loses.
    I would love this, if only for the fact that it covertly teaches statistics, which is something that apparently people could use a refresher on.

    Malreck04 said:

    @DNA3000 could you elaborate on why the mcoc monthy hall switchers would have a better overall result? The closed door has a 50% of chance of having a six star and so does the other, why would switching be better?

    If anyone else is wondering it’s because your odds are locked in once you choose your first door. It’s 1/3 then, and removing the other option doesn’t suddenly make it 50/50 just because there’s only two options now.

    To demonstrate this, imagine there were 100 doors, 1 with the prize and 99 with nothing. You randomly pick one, the host then opens 98 doors showing you nothing. He then asks you whether you want to swap.

    The chances of you randomly picking the one door with the prize out of 100 is so low, that the host revealing 98 doors without a prize means that the final door he didn’t reveal likely has the prize in it.

    The odds were locked in at 1% chance when you selected the first door. So the odds now that the other door contains the prize is 99%. Even though there are two options, it’s not 50/50.
    See, I always was confused when first thinking about this because nobody explained the "locked in" idea, they just stated it and assumed that the logic caught up to the rest of it. Here is a more in depth explanation:

    Assuming behind the three doors, you have two Iron Men and one Ghost, you pick door 1. Here are the possible scenarios:
    Scenario one: Door 1 - Ghost, Door 2 - IM, Door 3 - IM
    Scenario two: Door 1 - IM, Door 2 - Ghost, Door 3 - IM
    Scenario three: Door 1 - IM, Door 2 - IM, Door 3 - Ghost
    So the odds of you picking the right door is 33.3%. Here is where the scenario changes, Kabam Montii will always open one of the doors with Iron Man. In scenario one, you picked correctly, so he could open either other door. In the other two scenarios, he only can open the door with the other Iron Man (since one is behind the door you picked, door 1). If in each of these three scenarios, you were to stick with your original choice, you would still be correct 33% of the time. If in each of these three scenarios you always switch to the other door, you will move your choice from Ghost to Iron Man 33.3% of the time, but you will correctly move from Iron Man to Ghost 66.6% of the time.

    The key for me is to not look at it as two individual sets of choices, but as one big choice where the odds don't get "locked in" but more information is given so that you can make a better overall decision. The whole locked-in thing is fine and all, but it doesn't really explain why the odds don't shift, it just pre-supposes that you understand how the giving of information changes the system. I think most people get tripped up because they don't realize that Montii can't actually open the door you chose, and what that does to the probabilities.
  • pseudosanepseudosane Member, Guardian Posts: 3,974 Guardian
    edited March 2022
    Are we really looking at semantics of the statement in statistics? This thread seems to be getting dumber.
    Many of us here do know what the numbers are.

    bottom line:chances are very very low. ANd that is just the point.
  • AverageGamer13AverageGamer13 Member Posts: 2
    edited March 2022
    Bro Glads, just accept you are wrong in this case and move on.

    The mistake you are making again and again is that you are calculating the probability of pulling a particular champ twice in row, while what you should be calculating is probability of pulling any champ twice in a row.

    Further your claim to have studied advance maths and then your disbelief that the chance of pulling the same champ again and the chance of pulling any champ, is the SAME, mildly amuses me. If you had studied just a tiny bit of probability theory or random processes then you would know that after pulling a certain champ, you have the same chance of pulling that champ again as you have the chance of pulling any other particular champ. Thats just how random processes work.

    I would suggest you read probability theory by SL Ross instead of quoting random **** from the internet.
  • AverageDesiAverageDesi Member Posts: 5,260 ★★★★★

    DNA3000 said:

    DNA3000 said:

    Wicket329 said:

    This thread is going to give me an aneurysm.

    Could be worse. We could be discussing the Monty Haul problem.

    Oh man, I really gotta get the Kabam developers to implement that one in the game. The enormous advantage the people who accept the math would have over the players willing to die on the hill of incorrect intuition would be awesome.
    MCOC Monty Hall problem: Groots
    behind two doors and a Ghost behind the third?
    The Monty Haul Mythic Nexus crystal. Guaranteed to have exactly one 6* champ option, the rest are 3*.

    Game shows you three hidden options. You get to pick one. Before the game shows you what you picked, it opens one option that definitely contain a 3* champ. Then it gives you the option to keep your choice or switch.

    Those who switch will have an enormous edge over those who stick. But the people who do stick will be so convinced they are correct to stick many will do so no matter how horrible their results are, then they will descend into crystal manipulation madness convinced the game is cheating them. Meanwhile the people who understand the actual probabilities will be getting 6* champs twice as often as those who stick.

    You balance the cost of the crystal as costing about 50% of the relative cost of a 6* crystal. Those who switch come out ahead. Those who don't come out behind. Good math wins. Bad math loses.
    I would love this, if only for the fact that it covertly teaches statistics, which is something that apparently people could use a refresher on.

    Malreck04 said:

    @DNA3000 could you elaborate on why the mcoc monthy hall switchers would have a better overall result? The closed door has a 50% of chance of having a six star and so does the other, why would switching be better?

    If anyone else is wondering it’s because your odds are locked in once you choose your first door. It’s 1/3 then, and removing the other option doesn’t suddenly make it 50/50 just because there’s only two options now.

    To demonstrate this, imagine there were 100 doors, 1 with the prize and 99 with nothing. You randomly pick one, the host then opens 98 doors showing you nothing. He then asks you whether you want to swap.

    The chances of you randomly picking the one door with the prize out of 100 is so low, that the host revealing 98 doors without a prize means that the final door he didn’t reveal likely has the prize in it.

    The odds were locked in at 1% chance when you selected the first door. So the odds now that the other door contains the prize is 99%. Even though there are two options, it’s not 50/50.
    . Here is where the scenario changes, Kabam Montii will always open one of the doors with Iron Man.
    Was it Kabam Myke the whole time?
  • GroundedWisdomGroundedWisdom Member Posts: 36,555 ★★★★★

    DNA3000 said:

    DNA3000 said:

    Wicket329 said:

    This thread is going to give me an aneurysm.

    Could be worse. We could be discussing the Monty Haul problem.

    Oh man, I really gotta get the Kabam developers to implement that one in the game. The enormous advantage the people who accept the math would have over the players willing to die on the hill of incorrect intuition would be awesome.
    MCOC Monty Hall problem: Groots
    behind two doors and a Ghost behind the third?
    The Monty Haul Mythic Nexus crystal. Guaranteed to have exactly one 6* champ option, the rest are 3*.

    Game shows you three hidden options. You get to pick one. Before the game shows you what you picked, it opens one option that definitely contain a 3* champ. Then it gives you the option to keep your choice or switch.

    Those who switch will have an enormous edge over those who stick. But the people who do stick will be so convinced they are correct to stick many will do so no matter how horrible their results are, then they will descend into crystal manipulation madness convinced the game is cheating them. Meanwhile the people who understand the actual probabilities will be getting 6* champs twice as often as those who stick.

    You balance the cost of the crystal as costing about 50% of the relative cost of a 6* crystal. Those who switch come out ahead. Those who don't come out behind. Good math wins. Bad math loses.
    I would love this, if only for the fact that it covertly teaches statistics, which is something that apparently people could use a refresher on.

    Malreck04 said:

    @DNA3000 could you elaborate on why the mcoc monthy hall switchers would have a better overall result? The closed door has a 50% of chance of having a six star and so does the other, why would switching be better?

    If anyone else is wondering it’s because your odds are locked in once you choose your first door. It’s 1/3 then, and removing the other option doesn’t suddenly make it 50/50 just because there’s only two options now.

    To demonstrate this, imagine there were 100 doors, 1 with the prize and 99 with nothing. You randomly pick one, the host then opens 98 doors showing you nothing. He then asks you whether you want to swap.

    The chances of you randomly picking the one door with the prize out of 100 is so low, that the host revealing 98 doors without a prize means that the final door he didn’t reveal likely has the prize in it.

    The odds were locked in at 1% chance when you selected the first door. So the odds now that the other door contains the prize is 99%. Even though there are two options, it’s not 50/50.
    . Here is where the scenario changes, Kabam Montii will always open one of the doors with Iron Man.
    Was it Kabam Myke the whole time?

  • GroundedWisdomGroundedWisdom Member Posts: 36,555 ★★★★★
    This is correct. The only party that 2 similar, consecutive pulls are significant to is the Player. The computer doesn't recognize it as anything. It's also subjective. If I were to pull 2 Hercs, we would call that good luck. If I were to pull 2 OG IM, people would call it bad RNG.
  • DNA3000DNA3000 Member, Guardian Posts: 19,640 Guardian
    mortenhy said:

    Look, if the chance of pulling a champ is 1/250, then the chance of pulling him again in the next crystal should be almost impossible right? To me it's logic, but I could for sure be wrong..btw mates, sorry for the english spelling, I'm danish.

    This is a common misconception where intuition goes wrong. The confusion is due to a combination of understanding what independent odds mean, and what probability actually measures.

    If I say a coin has a 50% chance of landing heads when you flip it (let's not get into whether coin flips are perfectly even for now) it is obvious what I mean. But when I say there's a 25% chance of flipping two heads in a row, what do I mean? I mean that if I flip a coin twice, there's four possibilities: HH, HT, TH, TT. And one of them is two heads. So there's a one in four chance of getting that possibility.

    To be specific, we're assuming the coin doesn't have a memory. When it lands heads, there's still a 50% chance of it landing heads or tails on the next flip. And the next one. And the next one. So I can say that *if* the coin lands heads, there's a 50% chance of landing heads or tails on the next flip, which means *if* the coin lands heads, the two possibilities are HT and HH. *If* the coin landed tails first, the two possibilities are TH and TT. We know this because the first flip doesn't influence the second one.

    Notice we have a short cut we can use. If there are two possibilities for the first flip, and each of those two possibilities has two possibilities for the second flip, then there are four possibilities because 2 x 2 = 4. Because we have two sets of two possibilities.

    Going further, there's a 12.5% chance of getting three heads in a row, and there's a 1/1024 chance of getting ten heads in a row. We can imagine list listing all the possibilities out: HHHHHHHHHH, HHHHHHHHHT, etc. But it is obvious there will be 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x ... x 2 = 1024 possibilities, and one of them is all heads. All of this is due to the principle of independent events. Since each event is independent of the past, we can assess the odds of a sequence of events happening before it happens with relatively simple math. We are really just counting possibilities, only without having to write them all out.

    But what if you've already flipped nine heads in a row? What are the odds of flipping heads again? Still 50% You might think but the odds of flipping ten in a row are 1/1024, how can the odds of flipping heads now be 50%? Shouldn't it be super rare?

    It is super rare to flip ten in a row, but you've already flipped nine in a row. The odds of flipping nine in a row are 1/512 IF you haven't flipped a coin yet. What are the odds of flipping nine in a row now, after you've flipped nine in a row? 100%. The odds of doing that must be 100%, because you actually did it. It is done. Proof: let's bet on whether you flipped nine heads in a row. I choose that you did. I'm going to win that bet, aren't I?

    Probability measures the chance that a particular event will go a certain way, before that event occurs. *After* that event occurs, there's no more probability, there's only history. So while the odds of flipping ten heads in a row is 1/1024 before you start flipping, the odds of flipping heads ten times in a row after you've already flipped nine heads in a row is now 50%. Because the odds of flipping nine in a row at this moment is 100%, and the odds of flipping one more head is 50%. 100% x 50% = 50%.

    Probability measures the future. When the future becomes history, probability no longer applies.
  • The_ChumpThe_Chump Member Posts: 141 ★★
    Pikolu said:

    I love all the people that don't understand statistics on here. If your looking at the odds of pulling 2 champs individually, then it is 1/250. However that isn't what we are looking at, we are looking at both events dependently. The second event event can't happen without the first one. So if we look at the odds of pulling a 10 of clubs after drawing a 10 of hearts, then it is 1/52 (for the clubs) multiplied by 1/51 (for the hearts) because of the 1/52 chance, you get a clubs, there is still a 1/51 chance to pull the hearts so you multiply the odds together to reflect the accuracy of getting both cards. This is basic statistics I learned in high school.

    So if you roll a dice and get a 1 what is the chance of rolling the second dice and getting a 1?

    The odds of getting double 1s is 1 in 36, but the odds of getting a second of any number rolled first, is only 1 in 6.

    We're not looking at getting a specific champ, we are only looking at getting whatever champ we just got one more time.

    To break it down: Assume there are 250 champs in pool. To get Corvus twice you have to get him the first time at a 1/250 chance and then again at a 1/250 chance. To get any champ twice, you just have to get a champ, and since it doesnt matter who it is it is a 1 in 1 chance of getting a champ. To duplicate that champ it is a 1 in 250 chance.
  • Colinwhitworth69Colinwhitworth69 Member Posts: 7,470 ★★★★★
    DNA3000 said:

    mortenhy said:

    Look, if the chance of pulling a champ is 1/250, then the chance of pulling him again in the next crystal should be almost impossible right? To me it's logic, but I could for sure be wrong..btw mates, sorry for the english spelling, I'm danish.

    This is a common misconception where intuition goes wrong. The confusion is due to a combination of understanding what independent odds mean, and what probability actually measures.

    If I say a coin has a 50% chance of landing heads when you flip it (let's not get into whether coin flips are perfectly even for now) it is obvious what I mean. But when I say there's a 25% chance of flipping two heads in a row, what do I mean? I mean that if I flip a coin twice, there's four possibilities: HH, HT, TH, TT. And one of them is two heads. So there's a one in four chance of getting that possibility.

    To be specific, we're assuming the coin doesn't have a memory. When it lands heads, there's still a 50% chance of it landing heads or tails on the next flip. And the next one. And the next one. So I can say that *if* the coin lands heads, there's a 50% chance of landing heads or tails on the next flip, which means *if* the coin lands heads, the two possibilities are HT and HH. *If* the coin landed tails first, the two possibilities are TH and TT. We know this because the first flip doesn't influence the second one.

    Notice we have a short cut we can use. If there are two possibilities for the first flip, and each of those two possibilities has two possibilities for the second flip, then there are four possibilities because 2 x 2 = 4. Because we have two sets of two possibilities.

    Going further, there's a 12.5% chance of getting three heads in a row, and there's a 1/1024 chance of getting ten heads in a row. We can imagine list listing all the possibilities out: HHHHHHHHHH, HHHHHHHHHT, etc. But it is obvious there will be 2 x 2 x 2 x 2 x ... x 2 = 1024 possibilities, and one of them is all heads. All of this is due to the principle of independent events. Since each event is independent of the past, we can assess the odds of a sequence of events happening before it happens with relatively simple math. We are really just counting possibilities, only without having to write them all out.

    But what if you've already flipped nine heads in a row? What are the odds of flipping heads again? Still 50% You might think but the odds of flipping ten in a row are 1/1024, how can the odds of flipping heads now be 50%? Shouldn't it be super rare?

    It is super rare to flip ten in a row, but you've already flipped nine in a row. The odds of flipping nine in a row are 1/512 IF you haven't flipped a coin yet. What are the odds of flipping nine in a row now, after you've flipped nine in a row? 100%. The odds of doing that must be 100%, because you actually did it. It is done. Proof: let's bet on whether you flipped nine heads in a row. I choose that you did. I'm going to win that bet, aren't I?

    Probability measures the chance that a particular event will go a certain way, before that event occurs. *After* that event occurs, there's no more probability, there's only history. So while the odds of flipping ten heads in a row is 1/1024 before you start flipping, the odds of flipping heads ten times in a row after you've already flipped nine heads in a row is now 50%. Because the odds of flipping nine in a row at this moment is 100%, and the odds of flipping one more head is 50%. 100% x 50% = 50%.

    Probability measures the future. When the future becomes history, probability no longer applies.
    Most people in this thread aren’t listening to you, but thanks for trying.
  • Colinwhitworth69Colinwhitworth69 Member Posts: 7,470 ★★★★★
    Pikolu said:

    I love all the people that don't understand statistics on here. If your looking at the odds of pulling 2 champs individually, then it is 1/250. However that isn't what we are looking at, we are looking at both events dependently. The second event event can't happen without the first one. So if we look at the odds of pulling a 10 of clubs after drawing a 10 of hearts, then it is 1/52 (for the clubs) multiplied by 1/51 (for the hearts) because of the 1/52 chance, you get a clubs, there is still a 1/51 chance to pull the hearts so you multiply the odds together to reflect the accuracy of getting both cards. This is basic statistics I learned in high school.

    These two pulls are dependent, huh? Well what about the pulls you made before and after those? All of your crystal openings are part of the same sequence of openings that those two pulls are part of, so why wouldn’t you factor all of those in? Just because you happened to only open two crystals at the same time, they would be as dependent on each other as they would be on the previous and next pulls.

    But they aren’t.


  • DNA3000DNA3000 Member, Guardian Posts: 19,640 Guardian
    Pikolu said:

    Pikolu said:

    Pikolu said:

    I love all the people that don't understand statistics on here. If your looking at the odds of pulling 2 champs individually, then it is 1/250. However that isn't what we are looking at, we are looking at both events dependently. The second event event can't happen without the first one. So if we look at the odds of pulling a 10 of clubs after drawing a 10 of hearts, then it is 1/52 (for the clubs) multiplied by 1/51 (for the hearts) because of the 1/52 chance, you get a clubs, there is still a 1/51 chance to pull the hearts so you multiply the odds together to reflect the accuracy of getting both cards. This is basic statistics I learned in high school.

    Your statistics is good, but your understanding of and application to the problem less so

    I’d give it a 4/10 overall
    I personally don't care about the problem, I just want people to be educated on statistics before they shoot themselves in the foot playing poker.
    You don't care about the problem and still come and give incorrect answers? Why?
    Don't mind me as I pull up a source to back up my claim.

    "Dependent events: Two events are dependent when the outcome of the first event influences the outcome of the second event. The probability of two dependent events is the product of the probability of X and the probability of Y AFTER X occurs.

    P(XandY)=P(X)⋅P(Yafterx)"

    https://www.mathplanet.com/education/pre-algebra/probability-and-statistic/probability-of-events#:~:text=Dependent events: Two events are,of Y AFTER X occurs.
    Just to make sure no one is getting the wrong idea here (and assuming anyone is still awake), the source correctly defines how to calculate dependent probabilities. If X and Y are independent, then P(Y) doesn't depend on X, and thus the probability of X occurring and then Y occurring is just P(X) x P(Y) - the odds of X happening multiplied by the odds of Y happening.

    But if Y depends on X, that means P(Y) depends on X - depending on what X ends up being, the odds of Y happening will be different. So P(Y) is not just one number, it depends on X. So P(X) x P(Y) is meaningless. You have to instead figure out what P(Y) is given X, and then use that. Thus: P(X) x P(Y given X).

    However, crystal openings are independent. That means the odds of any particular champion popping out of crystal Y are the same regardless of what pops out of crystal X. P(X) is constant, and P(Y) is constant.

    Here's an example of a dependent probability. What are the odds of pulling Doom from a Nexus 6* crystal? Nexus crystals are specifically programmed to never generate duplicate results. So the odds of Doom showing up in the second slot depend on what shows up in the first slot. If the first slot isn't Doom the odds are one thing, but if Doom shows up in the first slot the odds are something else (namely: zero). Those are dependent probabilities. Calculating this is thus more tricky.
  • AMS94AMS94 Member Posts: 1,776 ★★★★★
    I just got consecutive 6* Antman in the same day
    One in the morning & another in the evening
Sign In or Register to comment.